Archive for January, 2013

PSA(IX) and (XI)

89_psa sample questions class-xi f89_psa sample questionfor class-ix – f

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PSA(Class XI)

1
Test Booklet Code Problem Solving Assessment No. : 8888888
Sample Question Paper
Class-XI
Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 90
This Test Booklet contains 20 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
01. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
02. The Test Booklet Code for this Test Booklet is P1. The Candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
03. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. A candidate is required to attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in section A, 18 Questions in section B and 18 questions in section C.
Section A : Language Conventions ( Question Nos 1 to 24)
To be attempted either from English Language or from Hindi Language
Section B : Qualitative Reasoning ( Questions 25 to 42)
Section C : Quantitative Reasoning ( Questions 43 to 60)
04. All the three sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these questions are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question.
05. Each Question carries 1 ½ marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 1 ½ marks. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark.
06. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet not handed over to the Invigilator shall be dealt as an Unfair means case.
07. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
08. Use blue/ black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or marking responses on Answer Sheet.
09. The candidates should ensure that the answer sheet is not folded or damaged. Do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board
Registration No : ———————————
Candidate’s Name : ———————————-
Candidate’s Signature : ————————— Invigilator’s Signature :————–
P1
2
Section –A ( Language Conventions)
Note: This section of the question paper contains 24 questions each in English Language and Hindi Language . A candidate is required to attempt all the 24 questions in one language only (Either in English Language or in Hindi Language)
English Language Questions 1 to 24
(Questions 1 to 8) Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage.
1
For Ananya, Mathematics was extremely hard to understand. In order to keep her
results high enough to succeed and to satisfy her parents, Ananya attempted a
2 3 4
number of strategies. The answer though was simple. She had to work constantly
5 6
and dilajentley at applying the different formulas to a range of contexts. Often
7
she was envious of her peers to whom comprehension came easily. However, at the
8
end of the year, it seemed her relentless work was rewarded when her results put
her amongst the leading scholars of her class.
Q 1. Which of these would be the best word to use to replace the word ‘extremely’ as it is
used in the passage above?
1) vastly
2) mostly
3) especially
4) massively
Q.2 Which of these is closest in meaning to ‘strategies’ as used in the passage above?
1) rules
2) questions
3) approaches
4) instructions
Q 3. Which of the following could replace ‘answer’ as used in the passage above?
1) reply
2) puzzle
3) solution
4) explanation
Q 4. Which of the following could replace ‘though’ as used in the passage above?
1) yet
2) even so
3) however
4) all the same
3
Q 5. Which of the following is the correct way to spell ‘dilajentley’?
1) dilajently
2) diligently
3) dilejently
4) dilegently
Q 6. Which of these is closest in meaning to ‘contexts’ as used in the passage above?
1) ways
2) settings
3) numbers
4) situations
Q 7. Which of the following is closest in meaning to ‘was envious of’ as used in the passage
above?
1) was jealous of
2) was resentful of
3) was bitter towards
4) was hostile towards
Q 8. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to ‘rewarded’ as used in the passage above?
1) forfeited
2) punished
3) penalised
4) disadvantaged
(Questions 9 to 12) This passage contains errors and an omission. Choose the correct option from the lists below to correct these errors and complete the passage.
I entered into the compound, (9)
________ was surrounded by gloomy stone towers, (10)
and realised I was alone and that I had to fend for yourself. (11)
I had only the clothes on my back and a desired to see my family. (12)
Q9. Which word can be left out of this line without changing its meaning?
1) the
2) into
3) entered
4) compound
Q10. Which word correctly completes the sentence?
1) that
2) what
3) which
4) whom
4
Q11. Which word should replace ‘yourself’?
1) I
2) me
3) mine
4) myself
Q12. Which word correctly replaces ‘desired’?
1) desire
2) desires
3) desiring
4) desirable
(Questions 13 to 16) Each of the numbered lines given below contains an error. Choose the correct option from the lists below to correct the corresponding error.
Within recent years, experts in Kolkata (13)
had worried about high mercury levels in some fish species. (14)
High mercury levels can be dangerous muscle (15)
weakness and mental and emotional problems
such as depression are common symptoms. (16)
Q 13.
1) in
2) at
3) over
3) from
Q 14.
1) had become worried
2) have became worried
3) have become worried
4) had increased worrying
Q 15. This line needs:
1) a comma after the word dangerous.
2) an action word to make it a sentence.
3) a comma to link it to the next line to join two clauses together in the sentence.
4) a full stop to complete the first sentence and a capital to begin the next sentence
Q 16.
1) (such as depression)
2) “such as depression”
3) such as depression!
4) such as – depression
5
(Questions 17 to 20) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable word from each list to fill the corresponding gap.
Cosmas Indicopleustes
Cosmas was an ancient Greek merchant who made sea voyages to India . He described and sketched some of what he saw and his works __(17)___ some of the earliest world maps.
He was given the name Indicopleustes, which means “Indian ___(18)____”.
Although there had been trade between the Roman Empire and India from as early as the first __(19)___ BC, Cosmas was one of the few individuals who had actually made the journey himself and, as such, is __(20)___ of this name.
Q 17.
1) receive
2) contain
3) exclude
4) subsume
Q 18.
1) sailor
2) sketcher
3) emperor
4) merchant
Q 19.
1) age
2) time
3) century
4) instance
Q 20.
1) proud
2) worthy
3) boastful
4) honoured
(Questions 21 to 24) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable option from each list to fill the corresponding gap.
The boat trip to Barren Island, __(21)___ home to the only active volcano in India, was not pleasant.
Our battle with the waves ___(22)___ with a display of billowing white ash.
6
We could see remnants of black lava from the recent__(23)____that had spilled down to the water’s edge.
Barren Island is a suitable name for the island given that it is home to a ___(24)____ of animal inhabitants.
Q 21.
1) what is
2) which is
3) what were
4) which were
Q 22.
1) is rewarded
2) are rewarded
3) was rewarded
4) were rewarded
Q 23.
1) outburst
2) eruption
3) occasion
4) destruction
Q 24.
1) limited number
2) plentiful supply
3) specific quantity
4) numerous amount
7
OR
8
9
10
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Section B (Qualitative Reasoning) Questions 25 to 42
(Questions 25-30) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
David
I spent some time gazing at ‘David’ inside the Galleria dell’Accademia. It is sculpted from a single block of stone and the grain of the marble so perfectly mimics human flesh that you can almost see the blue veins beneath the statue’s ‘skin’. Even though the line-up to get in had been quite long, it was worth the wait.
The viewer’s feelings about the treasure are not diminished by having seen pictures of it in advance. Photos really can’t do the work justice.
Q.25 What knowledge does the reader need to have in order to understand the comment
about ‘the viewer’s feelings’?
1) The statue is of a human.
2) Michelangelo was the sculptor.
3) The statue is considered a masterpiece.
4) The Galleria dell’Accademia is in Florence, Italy
Q 26. Which of these sentences would be an accurate summary of the passage?
1) 1 ‘David’ draws large crowds.
2) 2 ‘David’ deserves its reputation.
3) 3 ‘David’ was sculpted from one piece of marble.
4) 4 ‘David’ is on display at the Galleria dell’ Accademia.
Q. 27 The writer describes ‘David’ in this passage by
1) mentioning the pictures he has seen of it.
2) describing the way it is displayed in the gallery.
3) focusing on a detail in order to convey an image.
4) commenting on the time he spent gazing at the statue.
Q 28 The second sentence shows that the writer appreciates
1) the tools used by the sculptor.
2) the sculptor’s ability to plan ahead.
3) the human body as the inspiration for great art.
4) the opportunity to view pictures of the sculpture in advance.
Q 29. Which aspect of art does the writer value in this passage?
1) realism
2) repetition
3) abstraction
4) symbolism
Q 30. The final sentence expresses an opinion that is most similar to which of the following
statements?
1) Justice is blind.
2) Seeing is believing.
3) Believe half of what you see.
4) Original is better than restored.
12
(Questions 31 to 36)Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
“Aunt Betsey, there’s going to be a new Declaration of Independence.”
“Bless and save us, what do you mean, child?” And the startled old lady precipitated a pie into the oven with destructive haste.
“I mean that, being of age, I’m going to take care of myself, and not be a burden any longer. Uncle wishes me out of the way; thinks I ought to go, and, sooner or later, will tell me so. I don’t intend to wait for that, but, like the people in fairy tales, travel away into the world and seek my fortune. I know I can find it.”
Christie emphasized her speech by energetic demonstrations in the bread-trough, kneading the dough as if it was her destiny, and she was shaping it to suit herself; while Aunt Betsey stood listening, with uplifted pie-fork, and as much astonishment as her placid face was capable of expressing. As the girl paused, with a decided thump, the old lady exclaimed:
“What crazy idee you got into your head now?”
Q.31 Christie’s reference to ‘a new Declaration of Independence’ is a reference to
1) Uncle’s plans to force Christie to leave home.
2) Christie’s desire to be in control of her own future.
3) an upcoming change in the nation’s political structures.
4) Christie’s frustration with Aunt Betsey’s expectations of obedience.
Q.32 Aunt Betsey’s initial reaction to Christie’s announcement is best described as
1) angry.
2) curious.
3) surprised.
4) concerned.
Q.33 How does Christie regard fairy tales?
1) They provide positive inspiration.
2) They are a source of entertainment.
3) They contain important moral lessons.
4) They present an unrealistic view of the world.
Q.34 The manner in which Christie kneaded the bread emphasised her
1) resolve.
2) impatience.
3) excitement.
4) resentment.
Q 35 Judging from the passage as a whole, Aunt Betsey’s temperament can be described as being generally
1) calm.
2) stern.
3) nervous.
4) depressed.
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Q 36 Which of these words best reflects the meaning of the word ‘decided’ as used in the second to last sentence?
1) final
2) precise
3) focussed
4) deliberate
Q.37 Pari tells her friends that she likes French films.
Which of these would best justify her statement?
1) She has seen the same French film in four different cinemas.
2) She has seen four different French films in the same cinema.
3) She has seen four French romance films in four different cinemas.
4) She has seen four different French films with the same leading actress
Q.38 Consider the relationship between the following words:
police officer : badge
Which of these word pairs expresses this same relationship?
1) cap : nurse
2) general: stars
3) doctor: syringe
4) fire fighter: hose
Portugal’s people
Portugal has a population of about 10 million. The population density is greatest in Lisbon the capital, and its suburbs, where about 1.9 million people live. The second largest city in Portugal is Oporto in the north. Generally speaking, there are more people living in the country’s coastal regions than in the inland areas.
Q.39 Which of the following graphics would help to clarify the information in this passage?
1) diagrams of Portugese regions
2) photographs of the cities and people
3) a map of Europe with Portugal highlighted
4) a pie graph of resident numbers in towns and cities
Q.40 Most people are about as happy as they make their minds up to be.”
This quotation says that happiness is
1) not able to be accurately measured.
2) a difficult decision for some people.
3) a result of conscious intellectual effort.
4) determined by attitude, not circumstances
Q.41 The statement ‘An engine is a part of a car.’ can be expressed as engine : car.
Which of these word pairs expresses this same relationship?
1) building : balcony
2) artefact : museum
3) geography : mountain
4) competition : competitor
14
Q.42 Lateral thinking occurs when someone comes up with an unusual way of solving a problem. Raj needs a wrinkle free shirt for an important job interview.
Which of these is an example of Raj using lateral thinking?
1) Wear a T-shirt.
2) Use his cold, broken, iron.
3) Heat a frying pan and use it as an iron.
4) Put the shirt on and stretch it with his hands.
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Section-C (Quantitative Reasoning) Questions 43 to 60)
Q. 43 In the diagram below, only the horizontal lines are parallel. There are no other pairs of parallel lines.
How many trapeziums are shown altogether?
1) 12
2) 16
3) 18
4) 20
Q.44 Sana likes to wear her watch upside down.
She wants to see a movie that starts in half an hour.
What time does the movie start?
1) 13:45
2) 18:15
3) 19:45
4) 20:15
Q.45 Ravi is making a mixture of sand, cement and water. He adds 6 kg of cement and 4 litres of water to every 10 kg of sand.
Which of these statements is not correct?
1) The water is 20 % of the mixture.
2) The ratio of sand to cement to water is 5:2:3.
3) To make 30 kg of mixture, Ravi needs 9 kg of cement.
4) If he uses 4.5 kg of cement, then he needs 3 L of water.
16
Q.46 Aarush sat down to study at 8 am. The angle of elevation of the sun was
15.When he had finished studying the angle of elevation of the sun was 55.
How long did Aarush study?
1) 40 min
2) 1 hour 20 mins
3) 2 hours 23 mins
4) 2 hours 40 mins
Q.47 A pump brings underground water up to ground level. The water flow is measured in litres per minute. This pump fills an 18 litre bucket in 7 seconds.
The pump flow is closest to
1) 23 L/min
2) 126 L/min
3) 144 L/min
4) 150 L/min
Q.48 40 grams of salt is dissolved in 20 litres of water. 10 litres of this solution is then removed and an additional 10 litres of water is added.
The final concentration of salt in the solution is
1) 0.5 g/L
2) 1 g/L
3) 1.33 g/L
4) 2 g/L
Q.49 Eight students participated in a knock-out table-tennis competition.
In the first round Adi played Bali and Bali won. Adi was then out of the competition.
Which of these statements is not correct?
1) Faroz and Dasa played in the final.
2) Hari won against Gari and lost to Faroz.
3) Dasa won against Chapel and lost to Faroz.
4) Bali, Chapel, Faroz and Hari won the first round.
17
Q.50 One morning Bina downloaded songs from the internet. This increased her collection by 50%.However, in the afternoon a virus destroyed 50% of her total collection.
If Bina’s collection then numbered 300 songs, how manydid she have at the start of the day?
1) 200
2) 300
3) 400
4) 600
Q.51 A triathalon is a race made up of three events; swimming, cycling and running.
In this triathalon, there were three competitors who swam 1 km, cycled 100 km and ran 24 km.
Their approximate average speeds for each event are shown in the following table.
Swim
Cycle
Run
A
5 km/h
40 km/h
12 km/h
B
2 km/h
50 km/h
10 km/h
C
4 km/h
40 km/h
12 km/h
In which order did A, B and C finish the race?
1) A, then B, then C
2) B, then A, then C
3) C, then B, then A
4) A, then C, then B
Q.52 On Tuesday, Rasheed rode to school from his home at an average speed of 12 km/h and arrived 5 minutes late. On Wednesday, Rasheed rode to school from his home at an average speed of 18 km/h and arrived 10 minutes early.
How far does Rasheed live from school?
1) 4.2 km
2) 8.5 km
3) 9 km
4) 15 km
(Questions 53-56) Read the following passage and answer the questions as follow:
In a Spin
You have only to watch the daily movement of the sun and the nightly turn of the stars across our sky to realise that the Earth is turning. While you may be standing completely still on the surface of the Earth, that surface is itself turning at a rate of about 1700 km/h. At this rate, our planet takes 23 hours and 56 minutes to make one full rotation on its axis relative to any distant fixed star – a period of time that astronomers call a sidereal day. This is a tiny bit shorter than our ordinary solar day which is 24 hours long – the time between high noon on two consecutive days. The sidereal and solar days are different lengths because by the time the Earth has made one full rotation on its axis and the distant star is directly overhead again, the Earth has also moved 0.986 degrees further around its nearly
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circular orbit around the sun. As a result, at the end of a sidereal day, the Earth must continue to rotate that extra 0.986 degrees until the sun is overhead to complete a solar day. This extra rotation takes 4 minutes.
There are a number of factors that affect the rate at which a planet turns on its axis. Mercury, the closest planet to the sun, rotates much more slowly than Earth because of the dragging effect of the sun’s enormous gravity. A solar day on Mercury is the same length as 58 Earth days! Our own Earth’s spin is being slowed down by the tidal effect of the Moon and scientists have found that the Earth solar day is getting longer at a rate of 1 second every thousand years.
Q.53 Which of the following statements is true?
1) The sun is speeding up the Earth’s rate of spin.
2) Our clocks use the solar day as it is more convenient.
3) The sidereal day is longer than the solar day on Earth.
4) All planets in our solar system have the same length of sidereal day.
Q.54 What would happen if the Earth’s spin were to slow down?
1) Night-time would be longer than daytime.
2) The solar day would be shorter than the sidereal day.
3) The sidereal day and solar day would both be longer.
4) There would be more hours of daylight than hours of darkness.
Q.55 Venus spins in the opposite direction to that in which it orbits the sun, therefore
1) its sidereal day is longer than its solar day.
2) its solar day is longer than its sidereal day.
3) the length of its sidereal day is constantly changing.
4) the length of its sidereal day and its solar day are the same.
Q.56 Mercury rotates at a speed of 11 km/h. Therefore the circumference of Mercury is approximately
1) 1 550 km.
2) 9 200 km.
3) 12 100 km.
4) 15 600 km.
(Questions 57 to 60) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Bits and Bytes
While human communication is made up of letters and numbers, the processors within computers and other digital appliances communicate using a system called binary. The bi in binary means “two”. So the system is based on only using two options: either 0 or 1.
The binary system uses bits and bytes. Each bit can only have one of two values – either 0 or 1. A byte is a sequence of 8 bits. An average text file is made up of about 100 kilobytes (which is 100 000 bytes or 800 000 bits) while a TV show downloaded from the internet may be many gigabytes (1 000 000 000 bytes) in size!
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Computer processors run billions of calculations every second. Each calculation involves converting our normal base 10 numbers which are in combinations of 10 digits, (0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9) into a binary code, using base 2 numbers, or powers of 2. This results in a sequence of only 0s and 1s as you can see from the table below. This table shows how base 10 numbers are coded into 4 bits. More bits would be needed for bigger numbers.
Base 10 Number
Resulting
Binary
Code
0
0000
1
0001
2 or (21)
0010
3
0011
4 or (22)
0100
5
0101
6
0110
7
0111
8 or (23)
1000
9
1001
10
1010
11
1011
12
1100
Binary can also be used to encode images for transmission over networks. The simplest versions work by breaking up an image into a series of squares. Squares that are dark are given the value 0 while those that are light are given the value 1. Each row of squares can then be represented by a sequence of bits as shown:
Squares turned into bits Rows of bits turned into a
sequence with spaces separating each row’s values
Image broken into squares
20
Q. 57 What binary sequence would be formed from the image below?
1) 110 110 101
2) 000 001 110
3) 001 001 010
4) 111 110 001
Q.58 Using the pattern indicated in the table, what would be the binary
code for the integer 13?
1) 1101
2) 1110
3) 1111
4) 10001
Q 59. Which of these numbers would be written as 10000 in binary code?
1) 14
2) 16
3) 18
4) 20
Q 60. Using binary code, what would be the sum of the binary numbers
0110 and 0101?
1) 0211
2) 0111
3) 1011
4) 110101

PSA(IX class)

1
Test Booklet Code Problem Solving Assessment No. : 9999999
Sample Question Paper
Class-IX
Time Allowed: Two hours Maximum Marks: 90
This Test Booklet contains 21 pages. Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.
Important Instructions:
01. The Answer Sheet is inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only.
02. The Test Booklet Code for this Test Booklet is A1. The Candidate should check carefully that the Test Booklet Code printed on Side-2 of the Answer Sheet is the same as printed on Test Booklet. In case of discrepancy, the candidate should immediately report the matter to the invigilator for replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.
03. The Test Booklet contains 60 questions divided into three sections A, B and C. A candidate is required to attempt all the three sections. There are 24 questions in section A, 18 Questions in section B and 18 questions in section C.
Section A : Language Conventions ( Question Nos 1 to 24)
To be attempted either from English Language or from Hindi Language
Section B : Qualitative Reasoning ( Questions 25 to 42)
Section C : Quantitative Reasoning ( Questions 43 to 60)
04. All the three sections contain Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs). Some of these questions are passage based MCQs whereas others are stand alone MCQs. Each of these questions has four options out of which only ONE option is correct. A candidate has to select the correct option and fill the corresponding number in the Answer Sheet against the question.
05. Each Question carries 1 ½ marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 1 ½ marks. There is no negative marking for any of the questions and unattempted question earns no mark.
06. The candidates should not leave the Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty and sign the Attendance Sheet. Cases where a candidate has not signed the Attendance Sheet or the Answer Sheet not handed over to the Invigilator shall be dealt as an Unfair means case.
07. On completion of the test, the candidates MUST HAND OVER THE ANSWER SHEET TO THE INVIGILATOR in the room/hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
08. Use blue/ black ball point pen only for writing particulars on this page and writing or marking responses on Answer Sheet.
09. The candidates should ensure that the answer sheet is not folded or damaged. Do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
10. The candidates are governed by all Rules and Regulations of the Board with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of the Board
Registration No : ———————————
Candidate’s Name : ———————————-
Candidate’s Signature : ———————————- Invigilator’s Signature :——————
A1
2
Section –A ( Language Conventions)
Note: This section of the question paper contains 24 questions each in English Language and Hindi Language . A candidate is required to attempt all the 24 questions in one language only (Either is English Language or in Hindi Language).
English Language Questions 1 to 24
(Questions 1 to 8) Read the following passage carefully and select the most suitable option from each list according to the corresponding number in the passage.
1
The Indian Peafowl, alternatively known as the Blue Peafowl, is the national bird of India. The male is
2 3
called a peecok and has feathers which are made up of a range of beautiful colours. The female is
4 5
called a peahen. The majority of the female’s feathers are a plain brown colour. These birds usually
6 7 8
live in sparsely populated areas such as forests and don’t fly very often. They eat berries, seeds and
sometimes snakes or small animals.
Q 1. Which of the following could replace ‘alternatively’ as used in the passage above?
1) and
2) also
3) then
4) never
Q 2. Which of the following is the correct spelling of ‘peecok’?
1) peacok
2) peacock
3) peecock
4) peakock
Q 3. Which of the following could replace ‘a range of’ as used in the passage above?
1) pretty
2) unusual
3) a group of
4) a selection of
Q 4. Which of the following is the opposite in meaning to ‘majority’ as used in the passage above?
1) lots
2) several
3) nearly all
4) not many
3
Q 5. Which of the following could replace ‘plain’ as used in the passage above?
1) pale
2) dark
3) simple
4) gentle
Q6. Which of the following could replace ‘sparsely’ as used in the passage above?
1) lightly
2) heavily
3) densely
4) narrowly
Q 7. Which of the following could replace ‘populated’ as used in the passage above?
1) popular
2) settled
3) liveable
4) uninhabited
Q8. Which of the following could replace ‘They’ as used in the passage above?
1) People
2) Hunters
3) Animals
4) Peafowl
(Questions 9 to 12)This passage contains errors and an omission. Choose the correct option from the lists below to correct these errors and complete the passage.
The commonwealth Games were held in India in 2010. (9)
It was very successful and the attendances were high. 10)
A village was built for the athletes besides the stadium. (11)
During an interview, the TV commentator said,_________________________________________(12)
Q9
1) Comma required after ‘Games’.
2) ‘Games’ should not begin with a capital.
3) Capital letter required for ‘commonwealth’
4) Apostrophe required after ‘commonwealth’
4
Q10
1) They are
2) They was
3) They were
4) They been
Q11
1) near
2) close
3) inside
4) toward
Q12
1) These were the best games ever.
2) “These were the best games ever!”
3) “These were the best games ever”!
4) “that these were the best games ever.”
(Questions 13 to 16) In this passage, errors or parts of a sentence which have been left out, have been underlined. To correct these errors and correctly complete the passage, choose the correct option from the lists below.
Bina the zookeeper woke early although she wanted to see the tiger (13)
give birth. The zoo vet were hoping that the event would be (14)
successful and had stayed with the tiger overnight. When he arrived (15)
at work, the excitement was already beginning to build __________________________________ . (16)
Q13.
1) because
2) however
3) therefore
4) as a result of
Q14.
1) will hope
2) is hoping
3) had hoped
4) was hoping
5
Q15.
1) she
2) they
3) the vet
4) the man
Q16.
1) because there was a new cage for the tiger.
2) as it seemed that the cub’s arrival was close.
3) when the tiger cub went to the pond to have a drink of water.
4) since the sun was shining and it was a joyful day for everyone.
( Questions 17 to 20) Complete this passage by selecting the most suitable option from the list for the corresponding gap.
Dieticians claim that to maintain a healthy body, we __(17)__ to stay away from high calorie foods.
But selecting low calorie nutritious foods __(18)__ quite a daunting task.
Selecting food, studying nutrition facts on food labels and preparing meals all seem to add to the feeling that healthy eating is __(19)__.
Another barrier to healthy eating is the marketing of cheap, pre-packaged foods that has made it so much easier to reach out for a __(20)__ snack.
Q17.
1) may try
2) should try
3) might have tried
4) would have tried
Q18.
1) can be
2) should be
3) may have been
4) would have been
Q19.
1) a simple effort.
2) easily achievable.
3) urgently required.
4) a demanding task.
6
Q20.
1) cheap low calorie
2) simple and natural
3) tempting unhealthy
4) pre-packaged healthy
( Questions 21 to 24) Complete this passage by selecting the correct option from the list for the corresponding gap.
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee was one of the greatest novelists and poets of India. He is __(21)__ for being the author of Vande Mataram, the National Song of India. Chatterjee began his __(22)__ career as a writer of verse, but __(23)___ turned to writing fiction. Bankim Chatterjee was a superb story-teller and he enjoyed universal popularity. His novels have been __(24)__ into almost all of the major languages of India.
Q21.
1) blessed
2) splendid
3) infamous
4) acclaimed
Q 22.
1) prior
2) literary
3) life long
4) song writing
Q 23.
1) later
2) prior
3) firstly
4) meanwhile
Q 24.
1) reworded
2) translated
3) explained
4) paraphrased
7
OR
8
9
10
11
Section- B (Qualitative Reasoning) Questions 25 to 42
(Questions 25-30) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The cleaner’s name
During their last year at school, a teacher gave his students a questionnaire about Life Skills. One conscientious student had breezed through the questions until he read the last one: “What is the first name of the woman who cleans at your floor in the school?” Surely this was some kind of joke. He had seen the cleaner several times. She was tall, dark-haired and in her 50s, but how would he know her name? He handed in his paper, leaving the last question blank.
Just before class ended, the student asked if the last question was important. “Absolutely”, said the teacher. “In your career, you will meet many people. All are significant. They deserve your attention and care, even if all you do is learn their name, smile and say “hello.”
That afternoon, the student found the cleaner. “I wanted to thank you for the work you do,” he said. “May I ask your name?”
……………………………………………………………………
Q.25 The teacher gave the students this questionnaire “during their last year at school” because it tests skills that
1) will be learned after school ends.
2) were taught in the final school year.
3) are learned throughout all schooling.
4) universities and colleges will require.
Q.26 The student in the story was surprised by the last question because he assumed that
1) learning is only academic.
2) the woman was not a cleaner
3) there would be multiple choices.
4) he would know the cleaner’s name.
Q.27 The final paragraph of the story shows that the student
1) put the theory into practice.
2) had difficulty finding the cleaner.
3) misunderstood the teacher’s point.
4) wants to complete the questionnaire.
Q.28 The student in the story learned the importance of
1) tactics.
2) humility.
3) politeness.
4) lateral thinking.
12
Q.29 The teacher put the question about the cleaner on the questionnaire for the benefit of
1) the cleaner.
2) the whole class.
3) this particular student.
4) the teacher him/herself.
Q.30 The text is best described as a
1) moral tale.
2) urban legend.
3) children’s story.
4) humorous anecdote.
(Questions 31-36) Read the following two scenarios and answer the questions that follow:
Scenario 1
Sheena lives with her extended family. She aspires to be a doctor. She likes to devote more and more time to her studies but when she returns home from school her grandmother wants her to get involved in household chores. Whenever she sits down to study she is made to get up on the pretext of one thing or the other. Her parents find themselves helpless as they feel they shouldn’t argue with elders. Her grades have started going down.
Scenario 2
Yash is fascinated by cars and hopes to be an automobile engineer one day. He wants to opt for science but his businessman father feels that he should opt for commerce and take care of the family hotel and restaurant business when he grows up. He is good at mathematics and science but lacks concentration and likes doing lots of things at the same time. His father feels that he won’t be successful in life if he opts for science and is very upset with him.
………………………………………………………………….
Q.31 Which of these words best describes the interpersonal relationships described in the first scenario?
1) positive
2) friendly
3) conflicting
4) supportive
Q.32 The words ‘shouldn’t argue with elders’ is about which attribute?
1) love
2) trust
3) respect
4) confidence
Q. 33 Which of the following strategies could resolve the issues for everyone in both scenarios?
1) being obedient
2) changing aspirations
3) communicating openly
4) devoting more time to study
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Q.34 The second scenario clearly states that
1) Yash will take over the family business.
2) The father values commerce as a career.
3) Yash will become an automobile engineer.
4) A child must take over the family business.
Q. 35 What conclusion can be drawn from both scenarios?
1) There is only one path to a successful life.
2) Students should be able to do what they want.
3) To achieve their goals students need to work harder.
4) Children and their parents may have different points of view.
Q. 36 What conclusion can be drawn from scenario 1?
1) Sheena will become a doctor.
2) Sheena’s parents want her to do household chores.
3) The grandmother has too many household chores to do.
4) The grandmother values household chores above study.
Q.37 There are two rules for making words from the following grid:
1. Words can only use each letter once.
2. Consecutive letters in a word must border each other, including diagonals.
Which of the following words obeys the rules for making words?
1) green
2) spore
3) rinse
4) tides
(Questions 38 and 39) Read the given statements and answer the questions that follow
A. Many hands make light work.
B. Two heads are better than one.
C. Too many cooks spoil the broth.
D. A problem shared is a problem halved.
₁E
₅R
₆NN
₉I
₁₀T
₁₃E
₁₄D
₁₁P
₁₅N
₁₆E
₁₂OOO
₇S
₈E
₄R
₃GGG
₂E
14
Q.38 Which two sayings express opposite sentiments?
1) A and B
2) B and C
3) A and C
4) B and D
Q.39 Which saying encourages people to look to others for emotional support?
1) A
2) B
3) C
4) D
Q.40 According to Wikipedia, ‘nominative determinism’ is a comparatively recent term for the theory that a person’s name can have a significant role in determining key aspects of their job, profession or even character.
Which of the following would not be an example of nominative determinism?
I.Will Street – wedding photographer
2.Usain Bolt – Olympic track gold medallist
3.Alan Heavens – professor of astrophysics
4.Sarah Blizzard – television weather presenter
Q.41 Which of the following statements expresses the ideal relationship between the two categories; ‘politicians’ and ‘people with integrity’?
1) All politicians are people with integrity.
2) All people with integrity are politicians.
3) Some people with integrity are politicians.
4) Some politicians are people with integrity.
Q.42 If Ajit decided to lie to his parents about a poor test result, what is most likely to be the immediate effect of his decision?
1) His end of year report reveals the lie.
2) He is worried and doesn’t sleep well.
3) He does not understand the next unit of his studies.
4) His parents learn about the lie when they have an interview with his teacher.
15
Section –C (Quantitative Reasoning) Questions 43 to 60
Q.43 Rajit likes to take a different route to work each day. He always walks alongside some part of
the park, and only ever travels South or East.
In the diagram below, the lines represent the streets in his area.
How many different routes are there by which Rajit can walk from home (H) to work (W)?
1) 3
2) 4
3) 6
4) 8
Q.44 Observe the dimensions of given fish tank carefully:
When it is half full, this fish tank contains 12 000 L of water.
If 6 000 L of water is added to the tank, how high will the water level rise?
1) 25 cm
2) 50 cm
3) 75 cm
4) 100 cm
Q.45 In a market in Delhi, the price of a bag of 8 apples was 180. On the same day in Varanasi, a market was selling 5 apples for 100. A 3 kg bag was priced at 380 in Kolkata that day. In Mumbai, apples were selling for 230 a dozen. The apples each weighed 150 g. Where were the apples the cheapest?
1) Delhi
2) Kolkata
3) Mumbai
4) Varanasi
16
Q.46 Deepa did a Mathematics test with a different design.
Each correct answer scored 8 marks, and each incorrect answer reduced the score by 4 marks.
The test contained 30 questions, and after completing it Deepa had a score of zero.
How many questions did she answer correctly?
1) 8
2) 10
3) 12
4) 15
Q.47 In a test, Abha scored more than Bodhi, and Chatur scored less than Abha. Who had the lowest score?
1) Abha
2) Bodhi
3) Chatur
4) Not enough information provided.
Q.48 A florist made as many identical bunches of flowers as she possibly could, using a total of 100 carnations, 150 tulips and 200 lilies.
How many flowers did she use in each bunch?
1) 5
2) 9
3) 10
4) 20
Q.49 Vikhil has an appointment near the train station in the city at 10.30 am. To get to the city,
Vikhil needs to catch a bus and then a train.The bus leaves from Vikhil’s stop every 10
minutes from 9.00am. The bus trip to the train station takes 25 minutes. From 9.30 am
the train leaves for the city every 20 minutes. The train takes 15 minutes to get to the
city. If Vikhil wants to arrive as close as possible to the appointment time, what is the latest
bus he could catch?
1) 9.10 am
2) 9.20 am
3) 9.30 am
4) 9.40 am
Q.50 Hydroponics is used to grow plants in water that contains nutrients. Sourav has a hydroponic vegetable garden with four levels.
Onions are growing immediately above tomatoes.
Capsicums are immediately below chillies.
Potatoes are immediately below tomatoes.
Chillies are not on the top level.
Only one level has two vegetables growing on it.
17
Which two vegetables are growing on the same level?
1) onions and chillies
2) potatoes and chillies
3) tomatoes and chillies
4) potatoes and capsicums
Q.51 For a project in Science, Indira measured the outside temperature at 2pm for six consecutive days. In her table below, the data for Wednesday cannot be seen.
Day
Monday
Tuesday
Wednesday
Thursday
Friday
Saturday
Temperature
( 0C)
120C
150C
230C
240C
190C
When compared with the temperatures for the other five days, the temperature for Wednesday differs by 10C, 50C, 60C, 30C and 60C , but not necessarily in that order.
What was the temperature for Wednesday?
1) 130C
2) 180C
3) 200C
4) 250C
Q.52 Ajay bought a pack of 10 blank DVDs.
He received two discounts.
The marked price of all DVDs was discounted by 20%.
Then, when he went to pay, 30 – which was equivalent to 5% of the marked price – was also taken off.
How much change did Ajay get if he paid with a 500 note?
1) 20
2) 50
3) 120
4) 150
18
(Questions 53 to 56) Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The Pendulum Swing
A child moving backwards and forwards on a swing, the timing mechanism of a Grandfather clock and a weight swung to and fro on the end of a string are all examples of pendulums – devices first studied by the scientist Galileo Galilei in 1581. He noticed that, although all of the lanterns suspended from long chains in a cathedral swung backwards and forwards, they did so at different rates. He started to wonder what had the biggest effect on the period (the time taken for a lantern to make one complete swing forward and backward) – the length of the chain, the mass of the lantern or how far back the lantern was first moved before it started to swing (called its amplitude). As a scientist, he performed hundreds of experiments until he found out that all swinging objects or pendulums followed the same rules: firstly, pendulums that had the same length had the same period regardless of amplitude or the size of the mass at their end and, secondly, that the square of the period in seconds was proportional to the length of the pendulum.
Q.53 In Galileo’s experiments to determine how the length of the pendulum affects its period, the independent variable would have been the pendulum’s
1) time.
2) mass.
3) length.
4) amplitude.
Q.54 While investigating the effect of a pendulum’s mass on its period, the pendulum string breaks when you are only half way through collecting your 50 pieces of data. Which course of action is the most likely to produce unreliable results?
1) Knotting the string back together and continuing to collect data.
2) Using only the data that you collected before the string broke.
3) Starting the experiment over again with a new pendulum string.
4) Starting the experiment again using the shortened pendulum string.
Q.55 Pendulum A swings twice during the time that pendulum B swings once. What is the relationship between their lengths?
1) Pendulum A is twice as long as pendulum B.
2) Pendulum B is twice as long as pendulum A.
3) Pendulum A is four times longer than pendulum B.
4) Pendulum B is four times longer than pendulum A.
Q.56 Two pendulums, of different lengths are pulled back and released at the same time. If one has a period of 2 seconds and the other 3 seconds, how many times in a minute will both pendulums be back at their respective release points at the same time?
19
1) 10
2) 12
3) 15
4) 40
(Questions 57-60) Use the following information and answer the questions that follow:
Using levers
The lever is a simple machine that allows an effort force to lift a load by means of a fulcrum or turning point. A seesaw in a playground is an example of a lever, with the riders at either end taking turns to be the load or to apply the effort force. If the riders have the similar weights, the seesaw works well.
If the difference between the weights of the riders is very large, however, the seesaw can only work properly if the larger person slides closer to the fulcrum. In general, the seesaw functions at its best when the product of the weight and the distance from the fulcrum equals the same value for each rider. This is shown in the diagrams below.
40 kg
1.5 m
0.75 m
80 kg
40 kg
40 kg
1.5 m
1.5 m
20
This same lever principle also allows us to lift very heavy loads with little effort provided that the lever we use is long enough and the fulcrum is placed close to the load.
Q.57 When using a screwdriver to open the lid of a can of paint, a lever action is used.
In this situation, the fulcrum of the lever is the
1) lid of the paint can.
2) rim of the paint can.
3) tip of the screwdriver.
4) the handle of the screwdriver.
Q.58 A 60 kg woman wants to ride on a playground seesaw with her 20 kg child. Which combination of the positions shown in the table below would provide the most balanced ride?
Mother’s position
Child’s position
1)
A
C
2)
D
B
Effort
Fulcrummm
Load
75 cm
50 cm
150 cm
150 cm
A
B
C
D
21
3)
B
C
4)
B
D
Q.59 A farmer uses a 2 m long lever to lift large rocks from the ground of his field. He places a fulcrum 20 cm from the rock end of the lever and then stands on the other end, levering out the rock.
If the farmer weighs 100 kg, what is the heaviest mass of rock that he can lift using this method?
1) 200 kg
2) 900 kg
3) 1800 kg
4) 2000 kg
Q.60 Here are two other examples of levers:
Which of the following statements is true?
1) Not all levers have a fulcrum.
2) The effort force is usually smaller than the load.
3) The fulcrum must be between the load and the effort force.
4) The effort force and the load need to be the same distance from the fulcrum.
Load
Fulcrum
Effort